BIO 2220 Mendelian Genetics and Cell Replication Transcription Translation Questions

BIO 2220 Mendelian Genetics and Cell Replication Transcription Translation Questions

BIO 2220 Mendelian Genetics and Cell Replication Transcription Translation Questions

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I.Multiple Choice. For each of the following questions, choose the single best answer.

1.The phenotypic ratio in the second generation of offspring of a monohybrid cross is
a. 1:1; b. 2:1; c. 9:3:3:1; d. 1:2:1; e. 3:1

2. The law of segregation
a. Deals with the alleles governing two different traits; b. applies only to linked genes; c. applies only to sex-linked genes; d. explains the behavior of a pair of alleles during meiosis; e. none of these

3. This enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation during translation:
a. DNA polymerase; b. RNA polymerase; c. DNA primase; d. peptidyl transferase; e. DNA ligase

4. According to Mendel, what kind of gene “disappears” in first-generation offspring pea plants?
a. sex-linked; b. dominant; c. recessive; d. codominant; e. lethal

5. Mendel’s law of independent assortment states that
a. one allele is always dominant to another; b. hereditary units from the male and female parents are blended in the offspring; c. the two hereditary units that influence a certain trait segregate during gamete formation; d. each hereditary unit is inherited separately from the other hereditary units; e. all of these

6. Four of the five answers listed below describe the heterozygous condition. Select the exception.
a. carrier; b. true-breeding; c. heterozygotes; d. hybrid; e. Aa

7. Which of the following is not an autosomal dominant genetic disorder?
a. achondroplasia; b. cystic fibrosis; c. Huntington disease; d. one form of Alzheimer’s disease; e. a, b, and c are all autosomal dominant genetic disorders

8. Phenylketonuria (PKU) can be largely minimized or suppressed by modifying the diet to exclude proteins containing phenylalanine.
a. True; b. FalseBIO 2220 Mendelian Genetics and Cell Replication Transcription Translation Questions

9. Nucleic acid contains
a. sulfur; b. phosphorus; c. potassium; d. iron; e. manganese


10. In the bonding of nitrogenous bases,
a. adenine is paired with cytosine; b. adenine is paired with guanine; c. cytosine is paired with thymine; d. guanine is paired with cytosine; e. guanine is paired with thymine

11. A nucleotide may contain a
a. purine; b. five-carbon sugar; c. phosphate group; d. pyrimidine; e. all of these

12. Replication of DNA
a. produces RNA molecules; b. produces only new DNA; c. produces two molecules, each of which is half-new and half-old DNA joined lengthwise to each other; d. generates excessive DNA, which eventually causes the nucleus to divide; e. is too complex to characterize

13. DNA ligase
a. fills tiny gaps between short stretches of DNA; b. is involved in crossing over;
b. catalyzes the addition of new DNA nucleotides; d. breaks hydrogen bonds between the two strands of DNA; e. none of the above

14. Having hitchhiker’s thumb is a dominant trait.
a. True; b. False

15. Having a straight hairline is recessive.
a. True; b. False

16. This sex-linked recessive disorder can be successfully treated so that patients can live relatively normal lives.
a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy; b. red-green color blindness; c. PKU (phenylketonuria); d. hemophilia; e. none of the above

17. Translation only occurs during S of interphase.
a. True; b. False

18. In transcription, this nitrogenous base that is not used in replication is used:
a. adenine; b. guanine; c. thymine; d. cytosine; e. uracil

19. Sex-linked traits are most commonly seen in females.
a. True; b. False

20. The anticodon is on this molecule:
a. DNA; b. mRNA; c. tRNA; d. rRNA; e. polypeptide

21. This number of codons in the genetic code of all living things directly codes for amino acids:
a. 20; b. 40; c. 60; d. 61; e. 64

22. Introns are coding sequences on mRNA.
a. True; b. False

23. Where is the first amino acid initially in a growing polypeptide chain relative to the ribosome?
a. E site; b. P site; c. A site; d. small subunit; e. none of the above

24. Peptide bond formation occurs at this location on the ribosome:
a. exit site; b. peptidyl site; c. aminoacyl site; d. small subunit; e. initiation codon

25. Autosomal dominant disorders are the most common genetic disorders in the general human population.
a. True; b. False

26. Promoters are nucleotide sequences on rRNA that carry amino acids.
a. True; b. False

27. In a DNA molecule, hydrogen bonds link together:
a. a sugar and a phosphate; b. pairs of sugars; c. a purine and a pyrimidine; d. two purines; e. two pyrimidines

28. If the sequence of nitrogenous bases in one strand of a DNA molecule is (in the 5’ to 3’ direction) ACTGAGCAT, then the sequence of bases in the complementary strand is:

29. Which of the following statements on the replication of DNA is NOT correct?
a. The double helix is opened by enzymes called helicases; b. DNA polymerase catalyzes the synthesis of new DNA strands only in a 3’ to 5’ direction; c. In the leading strand, DNA is synthesized continuously; d. Localized regions of replication are called DNA replication forks; e. Okazaki fragments are synthesized and then joined to form the lagging strand.

30. What is meant by the term “primary transcript”?
a. a gene in a DNA molecule; b. a tRNA molecule; c. an mRNA molecule containing exons only; d. an mRNA molecule containing introns only; e. an mRNA molecule containing both introns and exons

31. Along with RNA splicing, the ________________ are removed.
a. Okazaki fragments; b. anticodons; c. introns; d. exons; e. lagging strands

32. When one strand of a DNA double helix with the base sequence GAGTACACT is transcribed into a strand of RNA, what is the sequence of bases in that RNA strand?


33. In the genetic code, how many bases code for a single amino acid?
a. 20; b. 10; c. 4; d. 3; e. 1

34. Which of the following is not a correct description of initiator tRNA?
a. It is linked to an amino acid; b. It binds to the initiation codon of the mRNA; c. It occupies the A site on the ribosome; d. It is the first tRNA to bind during the translation process; e. It forms part of the initiation complex.

35. True or False. In the genetic code, some amino acids are specified by more than one codon.
a. True; b. False

36. A monohybrid cross is
a. the second generation of a self-fertilized plant; b. a breeding experiment in which the parental varieties have only one trait in common; c. a breeding experiment in which the parental varieties differ in only one trait; d. a triploid plant that results from breeding two very different plants; e. none of the choices are correct.

37. Research since Mendel’s time has established that the law of segregation of genes
a. applies to all forms of life; b. applies to all sexually reproducing organisms; c. applies to all asexually reproducing organisms; d. applies only to unicellular organisms; e. is invalid.

38. Which one of the following is false?
a. The genetic makeup of an organism constitutes its genotype; b. An organism with two different alleles for a single trait is said to be heterozygous; c. Alleles are alternate forms of a gene; d. An allele that is fully expressed is referred to as recessive; e. The expressed physical traits of an organism are called its phenotype.

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39. Alleles of a gene are found at ____________ chromosomes.
a. the same locus on heterologous; b. different loci on homologous; c. different loci on heterologous; d. the same locus on homologous; e. none of the above

40. The phenotypic ratio resulting from a dihybrid cross during independent assortment in the second generation of offspring is expected to be
a. 1:2:1; b. 3:1; c. 9:1:1:3; d. 3:9:9:1; e. 9:3:3:1

41. A carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be
_____________ to transmit it to offspring.
a.heterozygous for the trait and able; b. heterozygous for the trait and unable; c. homozygous for the trait and able; d. homozygous for the trait and unable; e. none of the above

42. True or False. Gene therapy is successfully used along with the use of stem cells and chemotherapy to treat sickle-cell disease.
a. True; b. False

43. Individual features of all organisms are the result of
a. genetics; b. the environment; c. genetics and cytoplasmic determinants; d. the environment and individual needs; e. genetics and the environment

44. True or False. Having freckles is a recessive condition.
a. True; b. False

45. True or False. Women must be homozygous to show sex-linked conditions.
a. True; b. False

46. Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder?
a. phenylketonuria; b. cystic fibrosis; c. Huntington disease; d. hemophilia; e. muscular dystrophy

47. Which of the following involves an allele with a resistance to malaria?
a. hemophilia; b. Tay-Sachs disease; c. dwarfism; d. sickle-cell disease; e. none of the above

48. True or False. Injections and oral medications provide the corrected gene for hemophilia.
a. True; b. False

49. Which of the following genotypes show dominant phenotypes?
a. aa; b. Aa; c. AA; d. Aa and AA; e. AA and aa

50. True or False. Regular exercise on stationary bicycles significantly reduces tremors experienced by individuals with Parkinson’s disease.
a. True; b. False

51. A woman of average height mated with a man with achondroplasia whose father was of average height. What is the chance that this mating will produce offspring with achondroplasia?
a. 0 percent; b. 25 percent; c. 50 percent; d. 75 percent; e. 100 percent

52. If a daughter expresses an X-linked recessive gene, she inherited the trait from
a. her mother; b. her father; c. both parents; d. neither parent; e. her grandmother

53. A spliceosome is a form of which of the following?
a. mRNA; b. tRNA; c. rRNA; d. snRNA; e. none of the above

54. Adenine and guanine are
a. double-ringed purines; b. single-ringed purines; c. double-ringed pyrimidines;
d. single-ringed pyrimidines; e. amino acids

55. In DNA, complementary base pairing occurs between
a. cytosine and uracil; b. adenine and guanine; c. adenine and uracil; d. adenine and thymine; e. all of these

56. Each DNA strand has a “backbone” (or “railing” that consists of alternating
a. purines and pyrimidines; b. nitrogen-containing bases; c. hydrogen bonds; d. sugar and phosphate molecules; e. amines and purines

57. The best adjective used to describe DNA replication is
a. nondisruptive; b. semiconservative; c. progressive; d. conservative; e. lytic

58. The RNA molecule is made up of how many strands?
a. 1; b. 2; c. 3; d. 6; e. 12

59. Which of the following has two important binding sites?
a. mRNA; b. tRNA; c. rRNA; d. snRNA; e. all of these

60. The synthesis of an RNA molecule from a DNA template strand is
a. replication; b. translation; c. transcription; d. DNA synthesis; e. metabolism

61. Amino acids are linked together in proteins by
a. hydrogen bonds; b. peptide bonds; c. anticodons; d. wobble effects; e. codon bonds

62. Ribosomes function as
a. a single unit; b. two-part units; c. three-part units; d. four-part units; e. a multidivisional unit

63. The monomers of DNA and RNA are
a. amino acids; b. monosaccharides; c. nucleotides; d. fatty acids; e. nucleic acids

64. Which one of the following is false?
a. RNA uses the nitrogenous base uracil; b. RNA is a nucleic acid; c. One RNA molecule can include four different nucleotides in its structure; d. RNA molecules have sugar-phosphate; e. RNA uses a sugar with six carbon atoms

65. The synthesis of protein is
a. replication; b. transcription; c. translation; d. duplication; e. none of the above

66. True or False. The genetic code is degenerate.
a. True; b. False

67. True or False. Replication occurs as often as both transcription and translation in the cell cycle.
a. True; b. False

68. Which of the following is involved in taking out introns in eukaryotic cells?
a. RNA polymerase; b. RNA ligase; c. ribozymes; d. tRNA; e. none of the above

69. The signal that marks the end of a gene and causes transcription to stop is
a. RNA polymerase; b. RNA ligase; c. a terminator; d. ribozyme; e. none of the above

70. True or False. The leading strand of DNA uses DNA ligase.
a. True; b. False

71. True or False. The lagging strand of DNA uses DNA polymerase.
a. True; b. False

72. We would expect that a 15-nucleotide sequence will direct the production of a polypeptide that consists of
a. 2 amino acids; b. 3 amino acids; c. 5 amino acids; d. 7 amino acids; e. 15 amino acids

73. True or False. Albinism is an autosomal dominant disorder.
a. True; b. False

74. True or False. All of the initially-made mRNA in prokaryotes is used to code for amino acids.
a. True; b. False

75. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by an allele. A child has CF, even though neither of his parents has CF. This couple also has a child who does not have CF. What is the probability that the non-CF child is heterozygous?
a. 2/3; b. 1/3; c. 2/4; d. ¾; e. ¼